I am constantly told Jesus did not teach a rapture doctrine because Matt. 24 is written to only Jews. I will give you several scripturally based reasons why that is not the case, showing that Matthew, chapters 24-25 are divided into two groups, those who remain on earth for the tribulation AND those who leave with Jesus at the rapture, both groups being comprised of Jews and Gentiles.
First, while Jesus’ disciples were mostly Jewish, Luke being the obvious exception, they were ALL redeemed Believers in Jesus Christ, or they would not have been His disciples. We also know from Ephesians 2:19-20, not only are we fellow citizens with the Apostles, they were the founding fathers of the CHURCH. So, when Jesus taught the disciples about end time events, they were asking questions, not only as Jews, but also as founding fathers of the church. Additionally, as explained on another page, Jesus had already given instruction to the Apostles about their duties as the church founders, instruction detailed enough to have included guidance regarding church discipline. Matt. 16:18, 18:17. This means it is reasonable, and expected, they would have asked about the church as part of their end time query.
Second, in response to the second and third question asked by His disciples in Matt. 24:3, ‘What is the sign of Your coming AND of the End of the Age?’ Jesus gave opposing descriptions in His answers. Well, if the entirety of Matt. 24 was intended for ONLY the Jews, who rejected Jesus as Savior, how can His answers contradict each other? If the ENTIRE chapter of Matt. 24 were spoken to only ONE group of people it is not possible Jesus told them He would appear only after SPECIFIC visible signs Matt. 24:14-31, AFTER the most horrific period of time known to man Matt. 24:21, on a KNOWN day (day 2,520 of the trib. Rev. 11:3/13:5), in full sight of all the nations Matt. 24:30, IN DIRECT CONTRADICTION to His description of appearing during NORMAL EVERYDAY life Matt. 24:37-41/Luke 17:26-30, at an UNKNOWN time Matt. 24:36,42,44,50/Luke 12:40 to only His servants Matt. 24:48-51, 25:1-13, 25:14-30. If Jesus was speaking to ONLY the Jews during both passages, Matt. 24:9-34 versus Matt. 24:36-25:30, the Jews have absolutely no idea what to expect because He told them two completely opposite things. So which passage should the Jews heed? Which one is accurate? If one is accurate, that means the other is not trustworthy, but which is which? Do you really think Jesus bungled His description of end time events in such a manner? Did He go to so much trouble just to confuse us, TO make us doubt His trustworthiness? That’s absurd.
The only way to understand opposing descriptions is the logical conclusion there are two events in play because there are two groups of people involved; those who endure to the end at second coming Matt. 24:13 AND those who leave with the Master. Matt. 25:1-13. The Disciples asked about TWO signs for TWO events, so it stands to reason that if one event were in place His answers would have agreed with each other, not contradicted each other. Also, if two events were not in place, Jesus would have corrected the disciples’ misunderstanding about two events, which He did NOT do.
Third, the Jews rejected Jesus as Savior to the point God set aside an entire 7-year period of great wrath just because of their apostasy. It will affect the entire world, and the New Testament tells us EVERYONE who rejects Jesus as Savior will experience this wrath alongside the Jews. (John 3:36, Romans 1:18, 2:5, 2:8, 5:9, 13:4, Ephesians 2:3, 5:6, Colossians 3:6, 1 Thess. 2:16, 2 Thess. 2:12, Hebrews 4:2-3, 2 Pet. 2:9). Because the Jews rejected Jesus, they aren't looking for a second coming. They don’t believe He ever came the first time, so, why in the world would Jesus spend two chapters of Matthew speaking to Jews who rejected Him and are NOT looking for His return WHILE ignoring the church, the very body of those who DO accept Him as Savior? Why would Jesus spend so much time talking to people who rejected Him, knowing full well their apostasy would be dealt with, while ignoring those who have accepted, worshipped and died for Him? Does the church not need information about end time events, so it is prepared to leave with Him when He comes for her? Do the Jews get personal instruction from Jesus while the church does not, necessitating the church’s efforts to puzzle together randomly placed scriptures for instruction regarding end time events? Romans 2:11 tells us God does not play favorites. But if Jesus spoke to only the Jews about end time events, while ignoring the church, is that not favoritism? Of course, it is.
Fourth, Mark, Luke and John, none of which were written to Jews specifically, include the same information as Matthew. Their accounts are not as detailed as the Matthew account, but the complete truth of Jesus’ end time teaching is very much present in the other three gospels. For this reason alone, Matthew, could NOT have been written to ONLY the Jews.
Fifth, why did Jesus say in Matt. 24:15 'the one reading, let him understand..." Exactly how many apostate Jews, upon whom the wrath of God will come, are reading the gospel of Matthew?
Sixth, the specific signs spoken of by Jesus in Matthew 24:9-34 are part of the tribulation, NOT something which happened in AD.70, as many nonpretribbers claim. For instance, when did an angel circle the entire earth preaching the gospel (Matt. 24:14/Rev. 14:6-7)? When did the indwelled beast desolate the third temple, one which has yet to be built? (Matt. 24:15/Rev. 13:2/2 Thess.2:4). When did the man of sin rise to power, subjugating the entire world? (Dan. 9:27/Rev. 13:1-10) When did Jesus come on the clouds with great power and glory with armies of saints and angels in tow? (Matt. 24:29-31/Rev. 19:11-15/Zech. 14:1-5) See what I mean? NONE of these things happened in AD70, so Jesus was NOT speaking of the literal destruction of Jerusalem after verse 24:8 like He did in verse 24:2.
Seventh, the same Jews who rejected Jesus as Savior were not part of the church. Yet the disciples also asked, 'what is the sign of the end of the age?' What age could they have been referencing given that they’d been instructed about the church and had a working knowledge of their role in it? They were asking about the end of the church age! Why would Jesus warn the Jews about not being deceived and erring/roaming from a faith they did not possess? Matthew 24:4,5 & 11.
Additionally, the answer given by Jesus, that He would appear without warning (no visible signs given as in 24:9-34), during normal everyday life (Matt. 24:37-41/Luke 17:26-30), at an UNKNOWN day/hour (Matt. 24,36,42,44,50/Luke 12:40) fits NO era with regard to the Jews! His answer fits ONLY with the church age! The only Jews who will be calling Jesus their Master when He returns unexpectedly, at an unknown day, during normal life are Messianic Jews who will leave with Jesus as part of the Bride of Christ. Any Jew who comes to salvation during the tribulation will NOT be part of the Bride (Matt. 25:1-13), nor will Jesus surprise them during normal life because the trib. will be anything but normal life. Matt. 24:21. Neither does Jesus’ description of His arrival fit the OT age. No one of the OT called Jesus Master because Jesus hadn’t been born. NOR does Jesus’ answer describe the Millennial Kingdom, as Jesus will already be present when it begins; He will make no unexpected appearance at an unknown hour during normal life because normal life will be over, as we’ll have our incorruptible bodies and Jesus will already be present, reigning from His throne!
The only possible age the disciples could have referenced is the church age.
Eighth, Matthew 24:45-51, Matthew 25:1, and Matthew 25:14/19 all tell us the Master/Bridegroom appears ONLY to the servants/virgins/slaves. How can Jesus be the Master of the Jews when they rejected Him? How can He be the Bridegroom to the Jews when scripture tells us the church is His bride?
Ninth, Matthew 24:45-51 tells us “Who then is the FAITHFUL and wise SERVANT, whom his lord has set over his household, to give to them the food in season? Blessed is that SERVANT whom HIS LORD shall find so doing WHEN HE COMES. Truly, I say to you, He will set him over all his substance. But if that WICKED SERVANT says in his heart, “My Lord delays to come,” and begins to beat his fellow SERVANTS, and to eat and to drink with the drunkards, the LORD of that SLAVE will come in a day in which he does not expect, and in an hour which he does not know, and will cut him in two, and will appoint his portion with the hypocrites. There will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.”
If the Jews rejected Jesus, how are any of them faithful servants? How are the wicked servants beating up on the faithful when they are all apostates with God’s wrath bearing down on them? There is NO logical way to attach this parable to the Jews. It must be a reference to the church.
Tenth, why did Jesus give the description of birth pains in Matt. 24:4-8, then say He was drawing near when they begin in Luke 21:28? How is this information relevant to the Jews who will be under God’s wrath during the trib?
Eleventh, in Matt. 24:9, Jesus stated people will be hated for His names' sake. To this day, apostate Jews reject Jesus, so why will they be hated for His name’s sake? This warning to the Jews could well be true after the rapture and the start of the tribulation, but it will be true for ANYONE who comes to salvation during the trib., NOT just the Jews. Rev. 7:9ff tells us ‘a great crowd which no one was able to number’ will be redeemed during the tribulation, so it is NOT only Jews who come to faith during this time. Currently, there are roughly 15 million Jews in this world, scripture tells us 2/3 of them will perish, so the remaining 1/3 is hardly a number no one can count. This means there are a great many Gentiles involved.
Twelfth, in Matt. 24:13, Jesus stated ‘the one who endures to the end will be saved.’ It is logical He was speaking to people who will ACCEPT HIM as Savior? Here again, this statement of Jesus will apply to ANYONE who comes to salvation during the trib., NOT just the Jews.
Thirteenth, Matthew 24:31 tells us Jesus will send His angels to gather the ‘elect from the four winds; from the ends of the heavens to their ends.’ First, the ‘elect’ is defined as ‘the called and faithful ones’ in Rev. 17:15. This is additional evidence that those spoken of in Matt. 24:31 are not only the Jews. Second, the verse clearly states the elect are gathered from around the world. Nearly all Jews have returned to Israel from their scattered locations. This means those being gathered from the four winds are NOT only Jews.
Fourteenth, Jesus taught about the second coming in Matt. 24:9-34, but in Matt 24:36-25:30, He taught about the rapture. The rapture has zero meaning to apostate Jews and the Jews who come to salvation during the tribulation will have missed it. This means the final 15 verses of chapter 24, as well as the first 30 verses of chapter 25 have NOTHING to do with Jews. They involve ONLY those in Christ who will leave with Jesus at the rapture.
Some content taken from The Interlinear Bible by Jay P. Green, Sr. Copyright © 1985. Used by permission of Hendrickson Rose Publishing Group, represented by Tyndale House Publishers. All rights reserved.
Copyright © 2021 on Commentary by Angie Williams All rights reserved.
All definitions taken from Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance James Strong, LL.D., S.T.D. © 1990 by Thomas Nelson Publishers